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The absolute dates cited (80-85 ce) are based solely on a hypothetical construct of gospel origins and on a placement relative to Mark.
Once more there are other reasons, not stated here, for questioning such a relative time gap anyway.
No absolute dates (as for Paul in the 50’s, and knowledge of events that took place in 70 ce) are or can be independently determined here.
The arguments for the traditional dating of the Gospels have been aptly compared to a line of drunks reeling arm in arm down the street. Since it is generally agreed that Mark was one of the sources used by Matthew and Luke, it follows that if Mark was written around AD 70, then the other Gospels have been written later.
My question is, I feel like the arguments for saying the gospels where written before 70A. why do most critical and skeptical scholars agree that Mark was written around 70A. May God make you a bright light among your fellow Marines!
Given the pointed emphasis in the above quotation from BE to showing readers that there are “reasons” for each step of the dating process, this omission demands an explanation.
I suggest that the reason is that the assumption of historicity underlying the gospel narrative, and its related model of ‘oral tradition’, demand as early a date as possible for the written gospels.